Divorce Itself
I have previously written many blog posts on the adultery of
remarriage after divorce. I will now
write on the issue of divorce itself.
God hates divorce (Malachi 2:16).
That is a statement of fact, not a commandment. It is just as true today as was back
then. But the Bible does give
commandments also against divorce. But
before we get into the commandments themselves, I will review some concepts
that I wrote into my series “The Seriousness of Remarriage after Divorce”.
There is essentially no difference between a “legal” divorce
and “legal” separation in God’s eyes. A
divorce is any “putting away” of one’s spouse.
Whenever the Bible talks about relationships between men and
women, if you replace the masculine words like “husband” and “man” with feminine
words like “wife” and “woman” and vice versa, the resulting statement will NOT
necessarily be true. Just take
everything it says as is, and don’t try to make something out of it that is not
there.
There are some commandments in the Bible which are clearly
moral absolutes. That means that we are
to obey these commandments no matter what and if we don’t there will negative
consequences affecting the eternal salvation of ourselves and others. There are also commandments which are not moral
absolutes which we are to obey except in extreme circumstances when doing so
would actually go against the two greatest commandments (love God and your
neighbor).
Finally no Bible passage can render any other passage
useless. (II Timothy 2:15)
With these principles in mind let us first examine the
explicit commandments against divorce in the New Testament.
“…whosoever shall put away his wife, saving for the cause of
fornication, causeth her to commit adultery.”
Matthew 5:32 (KJV)
"What therefore God hath joined together, let not man put asunder."
Matthew 19:6 (KJV)
"What therefore God hath joined together, let not man put asunder."
Matthew 19:6 (KJV)
“And unto the married I command, yet not I, but the Lord,
Let not the wife depart from her husband… and let not the husband put away his
wife.”
I Corinthians 7:10-11 (KJV)
There are also other passages with bear on this question of
divorce which do not explicitly mention divorce itself. But before we get into these let us go down
some false trails.
Be ye not unequally yoked together with
unbelievers: for what fellowship hath righteousness with unrighteousness? and
what communion hath light with darkness? 15 And what concord hath Christ
with Belial? or what part hath he that believeth with an infidel? 16 And
what agreement hath the temple of God with idols? for ye are the temple of the
living God; as God hath said, I will dwell in them, and walk in them; and I
will be their God, and they shall be my people. 17 Wherefore come out from
among them, and be ye separate, saith the Lord, and touch not the unclean thing;
and I will receive you, 18 And will be a Father unto you, and ye shall be
my sons and daughters, saith the Lord Almighty.
II Corinthians 6:14-18 (KJV)
From the above passage, one might conclude that if a
believer were married to an unbeliever, the believer must leave the
unbeliever. But this is not the
case. The above passage is a general
commandment, which certainly can be used to say that a believer should not
marry an unbeliever, but the Bible addresses this particular situation more
specifically in I Corinthians 7:12-16 (KJV):
12 But to the rest speak I, not the Lord: If any brother hath a
wife that believeth not, and she be pleased to dwell with him, let him not put
her away. 13 And the woman which hath an husband that believeth not, and
if he be pleased to dwell with her, let her not leave him. 14 For the
unbelieving husband is sanctified by the wife, and the unbelieving wife is
sanctified by the husband: else were your children unclean; but now are they
holy. 15 But if the unbelieving depart, let him depart. A brother or a
sister is not under bondage in such cases: but God hath called us to peace. 16 For
what knowest thou, O wife, whether thou shalt save thy husband? or how knowest
thou, O man, whether thou shalt save thy wife?
Thus we can conclude that the unbelief of a spouse is not
sufficient grounds for a divorce.
However, if the unbelieving spouse wants a divorce, it should be
granted. Properly understood I Corinthians 7:15 is neither grounds for divorce nor justification for remarriage after divorce. The "departing" actually is a divorce. Here is another false trail :
15 Moreover if thy brother shall trespass against thee, go and
tell him his fault between thee and him alone: if he shall hear thee, thou hast
gained thy brother. 16 But if he will not hear thee, then take with thee
one or two more, that in the mouth of two or three witnesses every word may be
established. 17 And if he shall neglect to hear them, tell it unto the
church: but if he neglect to hear the church, let him be unto thee as an
heathen man and a publican.
Matthew 18:15-17 (KJV)
Suppose that a man trespasses against his wife and the wife
follows the above instructions. Suppose
he refuses to repent even to the point that the next step, according to this
passage is to treat him as a heathen and a publican (i.e. a pagan or a tax
collector). But again, according to I
Corinthians 7:12-16, an unbeliever is not to be divorced just because of his unbelief. Treating him as an unbeliever does not mean
you should divorce him. But the “heathen”
clause of Matthew 18:17 applies to generally to unrepentant sinners. But there is another passage which gives further
instruction for more specific sins.
11 But now I have written unto you not to keep company, if any man
that is called a brother be a fornicator, or covetous, or an idolater, or a
railer, or a drunkard, or an extortioner; with such an one no not to eat.
I Corinthians 5:11 (KJV)
Now this is actually saying do not keep company or even eat
with such a person. This goes much
further than Matthew 18:17. Some people
might say that if you are in a situation like this, just separate yourself from
your spouse, but do not legally divorce.
But I don’t think that this is the right way to look at it. In God’s eyes, there is not much difference.
Let’s construct a hypothetical example. Suppose a man is married to a woman who
satisfies the following :
2. She has NOT committed any form of sexual immorality.
3. But she has committed another sin or sins mentioned in I Corinthians 5:11 (covetousness, idolatry, railing, drunkenness or extortion).
4. For good measure, suppose that she refuses to repent even after her husband followed the instructions of Matthew 18:15-17.
Note that I Corinthians 5:11 is not specifically addressing
relationships between men and women.
Therefore it applies equally to women as well as men. According to the above passage, the man
should separate himself from his wife.
But Matthew 5:32 and I Corinthians 7:10 seem to indicate that this would
be sinful. So what is the man to
do? Recall that Matthew 5:32 is within
the context of extreme warnings against sin—those warnings are about eternal
damnation. Such commandments should
generally be regarded as moral absolutes.
This means that the commandment is to be obeyed even in the most extreme
circumstances (see Matthew 5:29-30). However,
note that the man who divorces his wife doesn’t commit adultery himself, but
only causes his wife to commit adultery.
(This is presumably because she is then able and will be tempted to
marry another man which is adultery in God’s eyes.) But the woman in the above hypothetical
situation has already put herself in danger of damnation by refusing to repent
of the other sin(s) she is committing. This
fact alone would still not justify the man’s divorcing his wife, but for the
reason why the instructions in I Corinthians 5:11 are to obeyed :
…that he that hath done this deed might be taken away from
among you…To deliver such an one unto Satan for the
destruction of the flesh, that the spirit may be saved in the day of the Lord
Jesus.
I Corinthians 5:2, 5 (KJV)
Again, when more specific instructions are given they take precedence over
a more general command, especially when the specific instructions indicate that
a person’s eternal salvation is at stake.
Nothing is more important than that.
But let us now look at the case where a woman leaves her husband. I Corinthians 7:10-13, the only commandment in
the New Testament that is against it, is not within the context of anything
about hell and the disobedience of this commandment is not equated with
adultery or any sin which is considered damning if accepted as a lifestyle (see
I Corinthians 6:9 and Galatians 5:21). Thus
we can conclude that it is not a moral absolute. This means that we are allowed to use some
common sense in judgement when extreme circumstances are involved. Thus, we conclude that a woman has more leeway
in regards to divorce than a man. This
is the opposite of remarriage after divorce.
In conclusion, a man must not divorce his wife except if she commits
fornication or if she claims to be a believer and he has taken her before other
believers and then the entire church and she still refuses to repent of her covetousness,
idolatry, railing (reviling), drunkenness or extortion. A woman may also divorce her husband for
these reasons, but there may be other possible reasons not specifically mentioned in
Scripture (e.g. physical abuse or if her husband is a drunkard but not a
believer). Furthermore, the woman does
not necessarily have to immediately take her husband before others and the
church if her life or physical well-being is in eminent danger.
Labels: Discipline in the Church, Divorce, Literal Interpretation of the Bible, Sanctity of Marriage, sin
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